Bible Question

What does “God may be all in all” (1 Cor. 15:28) mean?

Full Question:

1 Corinthians 15:28 states, “And when all things shall be subdued unto him, then shall the Son also himself be subject unto him that put all things under him, that God may be all in all.” What does it mean that God may be all in all? Does that mean His manifestations as the Son and Holy Ghost will no longer be necessary or something else?

Short Answer: What does “God may be all in all” mean?

1 Corinthians 15:28 parallels Zechariah 14:9 which reads, “And the LORD shall be king over all the earth: in that day shall there be one LORD, and his name one.” So He doesn’t manifest Himself to one person as one thing and to another person as another thing. He won’t need to be different things to different ones; all of God will be wrapped up in one. He won’t just be confined in one (Colossians 2:9) but all of God revealed as one, in the light of all of His glory (1 Timothy 6:14-16).

 

all in all
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